It seems that we always have examples where the investor’s risk tolerance is either clearly ‘above average’ or ‘below average’.
Would it be acceptable to rate a risk tolerance as ‘average’ in the case below for a pension fund (Defined benefit plan)?
- company in a declining industry but still profitable (slightly more risk?)
- slightly underfunded (less risk)
- aging workforce (less risk)
- currently low number of retirees/workforce (more risk)