Hello all,
I can’t understand how the free-risk rate affects option value. Why a decrease in risk-free rate of interest will decrease call option values and increase put option values? Who can help me and give an example how it works?
Hello all,
I can’t understand how the free-risk rate affects option value. Why a decrease in risk-free rate of interest will decrease call option values and increase put option values? Who can help me and give an example how it works?
Take a look at put-call parity.
European Call is worth S - Ke^-rt so if r increases, Ke^-rt decreases.
I wish I had used this approach when I struggled through options!