I am struggling a bit with Module Quiz 28.2, question 2:
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Why we do not deduct tax from the equipment sale of $10-$2=$8? Is it just omitted for simplicity purposes?
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In FCFE calculation if NCC (Depreciation - Gain) is first added to NI and then deducted as a part of FCInv (Depreciation - Gain) what’s the point? Is it because NCC can be much more than just related to PPE?
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If you look strictly at cash inflows and cash outflows, it is evident that cash spent on PPE was $46 during the year and asset sale was $10, resulting in a net $36 cash outflow. Why FCInv is $55 then? That is not real cash.
Thank you for your thoughts.