The answer for Q3 states that “The issue with benchmarks is probably more trobuling for individual funds than for funds-of-funds.”
Why it is easier to constrct a benchmark for Fofs than individual hedge funds?
The answer for Q3 states that “The issue with benchmarks is probably more trobuling for individual funds than for funds-of-funds.”
Why it is easier to constrct a benchmark for Fofs than individual hedge funds?
My first thought is that a fund of funds has less idiosyncratic risk than individual funds have.
i’ll add:
Because FOFs have:
Better liquidity
Informational advantage
Economies of scale ( such as manager selection and due diligence)
Lower minimum investment
Greater diversification ( and as S2000 mentioned, hence less idiosyncratic risk)