It’s the quantity demanded if Px = 0, I = 0, and Py = 0.
Of course, it’s not reasonable for any of those numbers to be zero (well . . . income, maybe . . . for a pauper . . . but not the prices), so there’s no real-world interpretation that makes sense (in isolation).
Yes, it’s the intercept, but it’s not the amount demanded _ regardless _ of price, income, and the price of other goods; it’s the amount demanded if the price, income, and price of other goods _ are all zero _, which isn’t a real-world possibility.
The quantity supplied if the price and wage rate are both zero: again, a useless interpretation.