From Soft Dollar Standards:
“In Selecting Brokers, the Investment Manager must consider the capabilities of the Broker to provide Best Execution.”
If an Investment Manager then makes a disclosure such as “We engage in soft dollar arrangements whereby the commission paid to such brokers may be higher than the commission another broker would charge for the same transaction,” then why isn’t the Investment Manager automatically in violation of its obligation per Soft Dollar Standards to achieve Best Execution? Is it that the definition of Best Execution is more broad than simply “lowest commission,” or is it that the Investment Manager is not technically required in all instances to actually achieve Best Execution? Or is it something else?