The Soft Dollar Standards reading cites an example (“Transaction 7”) where an institutional investor (one of many) in a hedge fund requests that the Investment Manager direct a portion of the hedge fund’s brokerage to Broker ABC to compensate Broker ABC for research services provided to the institutional investor.
Apparently this is prohhibited because Standard V of the Soft Dollar Standards requires that the Investment Manager not use Brokerage from another Client account to pay for a product o rservice purchased under the Client-Directed Brokerage Arrangement.
Would it not be acceptable for the Investment Manager to direct the same portion of brokerage is is represented by the institutional investor’s percentage ownership in the hedge fund?