I’ve seen this a couple of times now and it’s very confusing. The fact that it’s done in prep books seems to imply that the CFA might do it, but it just seems truly evil!
For example, we’re given an quote of GBP/USD = 1.55. Now, according to CFAI notes, they will always quote Price/Base, so we’re getting 1.55GBP for every USD. This is clearly not what happens in real life, although 1.55USD per GBP is around the current exchange rate. So I would be tempted to assume GBP was base and do the question that way, but that’s not what’s in the answers.
Apart from having a rant, just wanted to know if anyone else has come across this and if you know whether this is a mistake or it is something the CFAI do?