SFR3 (P1 + P2 + P3) + P3 = 1
This is the swap fixed rate formula. I came across a question where we are given a table of various zero-coupon bonds and their prices. Then also given was a tabe of government bond spot rates for various maturities (bonds with similar default risk). The question asked for the swap fixed rate for 3 years.
I’ll be honest I can’t wrap my head around the logic of the formula above. Why would adding P3 to that factor above need to be equal to 1? Is there a common sense way to think about this formula?
Maybe I don’t even understand what the swap fixed rate truly represents and its relationship to prices of bonds…