Tina Swan Case Scenario - Asset Allocation

Appreciate any help here:

Ratio of Excess Return to MCTR

Was attempting one of online TT questions, (Tina Swan Case Scenario), that lead me to Exhibit 19/(page 267 of Reading 17)

Other than the example of “UK Large Cap” (as explained in book), i am unable to see how the Ratio of Excess Return to MCTR is 0.368.

For example, US equities, it be (6.62% - 2.5%)/14.51 = 0.283

Am i missing anything here? --------------------------------------------------------

  1. Tina Swan Case Scenario

page 266 (of curriculum/reading 17): quote from textbook: "This scenario is in direct contrast to the typical private equity fund, in which the risk and return characteristics are often dominated by company-specific (idiosyncratic) risk"

To rephrase above: index funds on illiquid assets are dominated by idiosyncratic risk.

Trust you would agree?

Now, going to Question (one of option) from online TT was:

_ Easily tracked indexes in asset classes similar to that of an illiquid asset often do not represent the non-idiosyncratic risk of the illiquid asset very accurately (This is INCORRECT), because (As per solution):_

_ easily tracked indexes for an asset class usually do not capture the idiosyncratic risk component of less liquid assets _


Notwithstanding the correct option, the explanation to an incorrect option is a direct contrast to what’s in the curriculum…?

Book says that funds for illiquid asset class contain (idiosyncratic) risk, BUT the solution says that these funds do not contain (idiosyncratic) risk…??

It says easily tracked (passive) indices do not represent non-idiosyncratic risk very accurately.

Be mindful of the word non-, it’s saying they do represent idiosyncratic risk very accurately. This statement is incorrect.