Hi guys, can someone please clarify the thought process on the arbitrage calculation below. How is the profit in US currency? I calculated the implied rate by the interbank as CAD/BRL 0.50403/0.51375. So your arbitrage opportunity is to buy BRL in the interbank market at 0.51375 and sell to the dealer selling 0.5250. Wouldn’t the riskless profit be quoted in CAD?
Thanks!
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If a dealer’s bid-side quote for the CAD/BRL is C$0.5250, Tremblay’s profit on a US$1,000,000 initial investment in the triangular arbitrage opportunity is closest to:
US$21,135. US$31,328. US$31,315.
It is cheaper to buy Canadian dollars indirectly through Brazilian reals than directly with U.S. dollars. This creates a triangular arbitrage opportunity:
US$1,000,000 × 2.3844 = BRL2,384,400
2,384,400 × 0.5250 = C$1,251,810
C$1,251,810/1.2259 = US$1,021,135
US$1,021,135 – US$1,000,000 = US$21,135 profit
2014 CFA Level II “Currency Exchange Rates: Determination and Forecasting,” by Michael R. Rosenberg and William A. Barker Section 2.1