Hey guys:
When we are calculating the coupon payment for TIPS, is it based on the original principle or the principle adjusted for inflation?
For example, if a TIPS bond has 4% coupon on June 1st , by December 31st the same year, the annual inflation rate is 3%. What will be the new principle and the interest payment?
Plz help!
Thx!
It’s based on the adjusted principle; the coupon rate stays constant, but the coupon _ amount _ changes.
The new principle will be $1,030, and the new coupon will be 4% × $1,030 = $41.20.
S2000magician:
It’s based on the adjusted principle; the coupon rate stays constant, but the coupon _ amount _ changes.
The new principle will be $1,030, and the new coupon will be 4% × $1,030 = $41.20.
Ok I see. Except it should be adjusted for half a year too right? So the adjusted principle is 1000*1.015=1015 and the interst is 1015*0.02=20.3.
Yes. I was thinking of the annual coupon. Sorry.
For the semi annual payment why did you use 1015 as the principal and not 1030
Interesting question: how often is the principle increased? Semiannually, or annually?
But in this question, it is seminual.
Let’s compromise: quarterly.
ok…let’s see what the exam asks for…
Where’s the skill in that? Anyone can get it right once they’ve seen the question.
Just saying it is important to read the question carefully in the exam.