Hey Guys!
I am getting quite confused with the Triangular Arbitrage questions…like i do understand which one is cheaper to buy and which one should i sell but i just cant go ahead with it then…Can you guys help?
Let’s take an example -
USD/MXN - 0.6000 - 0.6015
USD/MXN - 0.0933 - 0.0935
Q1. Compute MXN/AUD Implied Rate
Q2. If Dealers gave a quote MXN/AUD - 6.3000 - 6.3025, is there an arbitrage profit if you start with USD 1 Million?
Guys please try the right way to think about this question. Secondly, i am just lost with the IRP concepts…Some doubts.
Covered IRP - Hedged with Derivatives - So it should hold in short run as well right?
Uncovered IRP - not hedged…says Expected S0 = S0(1 + Fr/1+Dr)
But eventually both the equations state that Rate of Domestic - Rate of Foreign (Rd-Rf) is the actual profit to the investor…am i thinking right? What is the question about Forward rates being an unbiased estimator…well it would be better if you guys can brief it for me in a simple way…
I would really aprreciate the effort…Thank you so much guys.