From the curriculum, at 5%, VaR = μ_p_ – 1.65σ_p_. The increase in expected return would result in a lower calculated VaR (smaller losses).
From the formula, if the expected return increase, the VaR should also increase. Isn’t it so?
From the curriculum, at 5%, VaR = μ_p_ – 1.65σ_p_. The increase in expected return would result in a lower calculated VaR (smaller losses).
From the formula, if the expected return increase, the VaR should also increase. Isn’t it so?
From the formula if zeta and sigma increase VAR increases. Thus if confidence interval is higher, 99 % instead 95 % and if standard deviation of return is higher, VAR is higher.
why don’t you look at it with some numbers instead of a formula.
mu=10% sigma = 12%
initially => 10 - 1.65 * 12 = -9.8% loss
say for some reason mu increases to 12% and there is no change in sigma … VaR = 12 - 1.65 * 12 = -7.8% loss (Lower Loss).
So VAR reduces…
The thing to remember is that the absolute value of mu - 1.65*sigma reduces as mu increases.
Thank you. Fully understand the VaR formula now.