What is the difference between these two formulas and when to use each of them

It might be a bit daft but I find these two formulas very similar but they give very different answers

In formula 1, r is an effective (annual) interest rate; i.e., it takes compounding into account.

In formula 2, r is a nominal (annual) interest rate; i.e., it does not take compounding into account.

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thank you for your reply
but for calculation of effective annual int rates we have to divide r by the no. of compounding periods like for semi annual it would be (1 + r/2)^2 but for calculating the forward price F0(T) = S0 (1 + r)^ 6/12
but for FRA we use [NA x( mrr x period/360)] I am having difficulty wrapping my head around this

Edit : just one more thing what is assumed to be the compounding frequency on the effective annual rate?

To add to the magician’s excellent answer

(1) is (1+r)^t and (2) is 1+rt, where t is the time in years.

(1) is continuously compounded.

but for calculation of effective annual int rates we have to divide r by the
no. of compounding periods like for semi annual it would be (1 + r/2)^2

If you have 1 payment during the period, at the end of the period you have 1+rt
If you have 2 payments during the period, at the end of the period you have (1+rt/2)^2
If you have 3 payments during the period, at the end of the period you have (1+rt/3)^3
If you have n payments during the period, at the end of the period you have (1+rt/n)^n
If you let n get really big (take the limit as n\to\infty), you have continuous compounding and
\lim_{n\to\infty}(1+rt/n)^n=e^{rt}.

How is this related to (1)?
(1) was (1+r)^t which you can write as e^{t\log(1+r)}

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thank you for your answer
ah now I see, would I be correct to assume formula (2) as sort of a holding period return
And also If I want to calculate the future value of an amount given r = 5% compounded annually after 6 months I would apply the following formula FV= PV (1 + .05)^6/12
thanks once again for your answer!

Edit I’m trying my best to not be annoying :sweat_smile: but the rate used while calculating Forwards price is the interbank rate which is compounded continuously which make using (1 + r)^period/360 correct but is this also applicable to formulas where r is an annually compounded rate

e^{t\ ln\left(1+r\right)}

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