Hi folks,
Here is the question which puzzles me:
I understand the methodology, but why are the forward rates used to calculate the coupon payment?
Thanks in advance, folks.
Hi folks,
Here is the question which puzzles me:
I understand the methodology, but why are the forward rates used to calculate the coupon payment?
Thanks in advance, folks.
It is a floating rate note set in areas.
So for example the rate now = coupon period 1; rate period 1 = coupon period 2
Pricing of derivatives – futures, forwards, options, swaps, whatever – is based on exactly one premise: preventing arbitrage.
The forward rates are the one-period rates that prevent arbitrage.
Nobody thinks that they’ll come to pass. But that’s not the point. Preventing arbitrage is the point.
My pleasure.