Question below;
Bond A
- Annual Coupon Rate: 10%
- Payment Frequency: Semi-Annual
- YTM: 10.00%
Bond B
- Annual Coupon Rate: 14%
- Payment Frequency: Quarterly
- YTM: 10.25%
An analyst believes that Bond B is more risky than Bond A. How much additional compensation, in terms of a higher yield ot maturity, would a buyer need for bearing the risk of Bond B compared to Bond A?
A. 0.25%
B. 51 basis points when yields are stated on a quarterly basis.
C. 51 basis points when yields are stated on a semi-annual basis.
The answer is B, which I generally understand without doing any calculations but I am having a hard time understanding the answer reasoning given with the answer. The reasoning says; "The difference in yield is not the 25 basis points. It is essential to compare the yields for the same periodicity.
The 10.00% for a periodicity of two is the same as 9.87% for a periodicity of four.
((1+.10)/2)^2 = ((1+APR4)/4)^4 => APR4 = 9.87%
The 10.25% for a periodicity of four is the same as 10.38% for a periodicity of two.
((1+.1025)/4)^4 = ((1+APR2)/2)^2 => APR2 = 10.38%
Thus, the additional compensation for the increased risk of Bond B is (10.38-9.87%) which is 51 basis points."
From the answer they gave it looks like they are comparing two different periodicitys, Bond A if it was a periodicity of four and Bond B if it was periodicity of two. Is it not? I would have expected to use the Bond A periodicity of four (9.87%) and the Bond B periodicity of four (10.25%) which is a basis point difference of 38.
Let me know your thoughts and if you can explain how I am looking at this incorrectly. Thanks!